UPSC Prelims 2026 Answer Key
UPSC Prelims 2026 Answer Key
UPSC Prelims 2026Answer Key
Exam Date: May 24, 2026 (Sunday)
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Answer Key — GS Paper 1
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Set A, B, C, D answer keys
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| Q. No | Answer | Subject | Question | Explanation |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | D | History & Culture | Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music? | |
| 2 | A | History & Culture | The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons? | |
| 3 | C | History & Culture | Consider the following statements: I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver. The above statements have been associated with which of the following? 1. Emergence of urban life 2. Transition to money economy | |
| 4 | B | History & Culture | Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara? 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole 3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh 4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal | |
| 5 | B | History & Culture | Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included? | |
| 6 | A | History & Culture | The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents: | |
| 7 | D | History & Culture | Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India: 1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595–596). 2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India. 3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century. | |
| 8 | A | History & Culture | Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns: I. Wide occurrence of spindle-whorls but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measurement scales with graduations discovered. III. Houses built with baked bricks, with own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms. Which of the following inferences can be drawn? 1. Statement I suggests spinning was laborious, done at home. 2. Statement II suggests the extent of scientific knowledge. 3. Statement III suggests emergence of a common property system. | |
| 9 | C | History & Culture | Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct? | |
| 10 | C | History & Culture | Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period: I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand. II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water from wells. Which information supports the above? 1. Evidence in Rigveda of ashma chakra and ahava. 2. Rigveda mentions parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle). 3. History of ox use even before Rigveda for ploughing and pulling carts. | |
| 11 | D | History & Culture | Consider the following assertion: In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna. Which is/are the basis of this assertion? 1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda 2. The explorations of the Sutlej and Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote 3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and Ganga river systems | |
| 12 | A | History & Culture | What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography? | |
| 13 | C | History & Culture | Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched? 1. Vitasta: Chenab 2. Asikni: Jhelum 3. Parushni: Ravi 4. Yavyavati: Beas | |
| 14 | B | History & Culture | Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct? 1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley. 2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size. 3. The Amaravati school made a lasting impact on South Indian sculpture and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia. | |
| 15 | B | History & Culture | Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched? 1. Senguttuvan: Chera 2. Udiyanjeral: Chola 3. Nedunjeliyan: Pandya | |
| 16 | B | History & Culture | Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939? 1. Bose failed to win Gandhi's confidence. 2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose. 3. The Communists did not support Bose. 4. Supporters of M.N. Roy and Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity over supporting Bose. | |
| 17 | A | History & Culture | Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856: 1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts. 2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming taluqdars were outsiders. 3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from peasants by removing the taluqdars. | |
| 18 | D | History & Culture | Consider the following assertion: The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which statements support this assertion? 1. Reforms retained and extended separate electorates. 2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism. 3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates. | |
| 19 | D | History & Culture | Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the: | |
| 20 | B | History & Culture | In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate? | |
| 21 | B | Environment & Ecology | Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change: I. India's LT-LEDS is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's BUR-4 (December 2024) recorded ~8% decrease in GHG emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets. Which relationships among these statements is/are correct? 1. Statement I is empirically supported by Statement II. 2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I. 3. Statement I and III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability. | |
| 22 | B | Environment & Ecology | With respect to Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this Endangered species. 2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees. 3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers. | |
| 23 | D | Environment & Ecology | Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience? 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal for paddy cultivation. 2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones. 3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases. | |
| 24 | D | Economy | In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy? 1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping. 2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping. 3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports. | |
| 25 | C | Geography | Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent: 1. It has an antecedent drainage system. 2. It flows through three countries. 3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important irrigation river. 4. It does not form distributaries. | |
| 26 | C | Geography | Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct? 1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States. 2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border. 3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State. | |
| 27 | A | Environment & Ecology | Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct? 1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the protection of international migratory birds. 2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds. 3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India. | |
| 28 | D | Economy | Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under NMSA? 1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas. 2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions. 3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS). | |
| 29 | C | Economy | Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry? 1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products. 2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards. | |
| 30 | B | Geography | Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach the Indian Ocean? 1. Bahrain 2. Syria 3. Qatar 4. Egypt | |
| 31 | A | Geography | Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries? | |
| 32 | B | Environment & Ecology | With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025. 2. Sakhya Sagar, designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park. 3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. | |
| 33 | B | Geography | With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate. 2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon. 3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May. | |
| 34 | B | Geography | Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India? 1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity. 2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills. 3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers. | |
| 35 | B | Economy | Consider the following about the Sagarmala Programme: I. Seeks port-led economic growth through cost-effective coastal infrastructure. II. Success reflected in growth in coastal/inland waterway shipping and improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047. Which relationships are correct? 1. Statement II validates Statement I's strategies. 2. Statement III extends Statement I into a future-oriented framework. 3. Statement I contradicts Statement III. | |
| 36 | B | Environment & Ecology | Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid): 1. It is an epiphytic orchid. 2. The species is endemic to North-east India. 3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. | |
| 37 | C | History & Culture | Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct? 1. They acted as army fortresses. 2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles. 3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles. 4. They were battle drill centres. | |
| 38 | B | Environment & Ecology | Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct? | |
| 39 | B | Geography | Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct? 1. It is the largest desert lake in the world. 2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert. 3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'. | |
| 40 | C | Environment & Ecology | Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ project in India? | |
| 41 | C | Science & Technology | Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct? 1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for faulty genes responsible for disease. 2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of genetic medicine. 3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence. | |
| 42 | B | Science & Technology | Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) is/are correct? 1. LLMs assign probabilities to next possible words and pick the one with highest probability. 2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors. 3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs. | |
| 43 | C | Science & Technology | Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct? 1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material. 2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies. 3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation. | |
| 44 | B | Science & Technology | Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes in modern aircraft is/are correct? 1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses for underwater detection. 2. They record both cockpit voice and flight data. 3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium. | |
| 45 | B | Environment & Ecology | Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct? 1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS). 2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy. 3. National Green Hydrogen Mission aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual GHG emissions by 2030. | |
| 46 | C | Science & Technology | Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme: 1. IN-SPACe is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate private entity participation. 2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using a 3D-printed rocket engine. 3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV. | |
| 47 | B | Science & Technology | Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct? 1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre. 2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones. 3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attacks. | |
| 48 | B | Science & Technology | Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct? 1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project. 2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). 3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population. | |
| 49 | C | Science & Technology | Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct? 1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits. 2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs). | |
| 50 | B | Science & Technology | Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct? 1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. 2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration. 3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission. | |
| 51 | C | Polity & Governance | Mr. X, a senior officer overseeing a vaccination programme, found that a private service provider was compromising on quality. Despite pressure, he reported the issue to the vigilance authority and halted the contract. Which principle of public administration was most strongly demonstrated? | |
| 52 | A | Polity & Governance | A government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet sparks protests. Tribal community claims the land is sacred; urban residents support the project for public health. Which statements would contribute to the resolution process? 1. Acknowledge cultural concerns first. 2. Move ahead without delay — urban health concerns outweigh tribal sentiments. 3. Create multi-stakeholder dialogue platform. 4. Conduct independent ESIA and share findings transparently. | |
| 53 | B | Polity & Governance | Ms. X, a civil service official, received confidential but unproven information about a contractor's poor workmanship history. Her HOD advised non-disclosure to avoid project delays. What should Ms. X do? 1. Immediately disclose to project committee and public. 2. Recommend removing the contractor. 3. Propose 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, keeping it confidential from public for now. | |
| 54 | D | Polity & Governance | 'X' and 'Y' are discussing the meaning of 'law' under Article 13 of the Constitution. 'X' says it includes ordinances, orders, rules, and regulations. 'Y' adds that it also includes custom or usage having the force of law. 'X' is not convinced. | |
| 55 | B | Polity & Governance | Consider the following statements about the Constitution of India: 1. No Article specifies the Constitution will be called 'Constitution of India'. 2. No Article specifies the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed. 3. No Article mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of commencement. | |
| 56 | B | Polity & Governance | Which of the following statements with regard to persons with disabilities in India is/are correct? 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, passed in 2018, mandates reservation. 2. Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on universal accessibility across built infrastructure, transport, and ICT. 3. NDFDC is a public sector organization set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. | |
| 57 | A | Polity & Governance | Consider the following statements about SC/ST provisions: 1. Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram are in the Fifth Schedule. 2. Some tribes are entitled to income tax exemption on certain incomes. 3. The Constitution provides for reservation in Panchayats for women belonging to SC and ST. | |
| 58 | C | Polity & Governance | Consider the following statements about parliamentary questions: 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer. 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer. 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. | |
| 59 | D | Polity & Governance | Consider the following statements about the Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs: 1. Chairperson is appointed by the Chairman of Rajya Sabha. 2. Twenty members elected by Rajya Sabha and ten by Lok Sabha. 3. No Minister, except Union Minister of Social Justice, is eligible as member. 4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years. | |
| 60 | A | Science & Technology | Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India: 1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities. 2. It is designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy. 3. One of the aims is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035. | |
| 61 | D | International Relations | Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries: 1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh. 2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar. 3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal. | |
| 62 | C | Polity & Governance | Which of the following statements about a Zero FIR under BNSS, 2023 is/are correct? 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at any police station even outside territorial jurisdiction of the offence. 2. The Officer-in-Charge where Zero FIR is lodged may, with permission, initiate a preliminary enquiry. 3. It is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically under Zero FIR. | |
| 63 | A | Polity & Governance | In how many of the following rows are all details correctly matched? (CEIB/coordinate law enforcement/Home Affairs; SFIO/investigate corporate frauds/Finance; CBI/preserve public life values/Personnel Ministry) | |
| 64 | D | International Relations | Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India? 1. Employment Policy Convention 2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention 3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families 4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War 5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness | |
| 65 | D | Science & Technology | Consider the following statements about the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi: 1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Progress. 2. The Preamble acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework. 3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI. | |
| 66 | A | International Relations | Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries? 1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project. 2. IMT Trilateral Highway. 3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line. | |
| 67 | B | International Relations | Match List I (Project Supported by India) with List II (Country): A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project – 1. Maldives; B. Restoration of Stor Palace – 2. Afghanistan; C. District Hospital at Dickoya – 3. Bhutan; D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies – 4. Sri Lanka | |
| 68 | A | Science & Technology | Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India? 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets. 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks. 3. Akula Class Submarine. | |
| 69 | C | International Relations | Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral cooperation: 1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process where member states take binding decisions by consensus. 2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process. 3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding. | |
| 70 | A | International Relations | Consider the following UN organisations/agencies: 1. World Food Programme 2. United Nations Children's Fund 3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees 4. International Labour Organisation. How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice? | |
| 71 | B | International Relations | Match List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) with List II (Period of Operation): A. UNMIL – 1. 2007-2010; B. MINURCAT – 2. 2002-2005; C. MINUSTAH – 3. 2003-2018; D. UNMISET – 4. 2004-2017 | |
| 72 | C | International Relations | Match List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) with List II (Location): A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory – 1. NOIDA; B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre – 2. Bengaluru; C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate – 3. Colombo; D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility – 4. Thimphu | |
| 73 | D | Science & Technology | Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (Indian Army Corps: Headquarters) | |
| 74 | B | Polity & Governance | Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct? 1. Period of implementation is 1st April 2021 to 31st March 2026. 2. Key objective is to develop governance capabilities of PRIs to deliver on SDGs. 3. Central funding share is 100% for all States and UTs. | |
| 75 | C | International Relations | Which of the following countries are members of the European Union? 1. Belarus 2. Poland 3. Germany 4. Switzerland | |
| 76 | C | International Relations | Match List I (INTERPOL Notice) with List II (Description): A. Silver Notice – 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies; B. Blue Notice – 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities; C. Black Notice – 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities as a possible threat to public safety; D. Green Notice – 4. To identify and trace criminal assets | |
| 77 | B | Environment & Ecology | Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience) is/are correct? 1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis vertical's lead institute is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata. 2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service vertical's lead institute is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi. 3. Capacity Development Support vertical's lead institute is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal. | |
| 78 | B | International Relations | The Chancellor of Germany visited India in January 2026. Which of the following is/are NOT correct in terms of outcomes of this visit? 1. MoU between All India Institute of Ayurveda and University of Hamburg. 2. MoU on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and German Hockey Federation. 3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific. 4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow. | |
| 79 | C | Science & Technology | Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct? 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme. 2. It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor. | |
| 80 | C | Science & Technology | The BIS recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal systems. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct? 1. The new standard is known as IS 19445:2025. 2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies. 3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia. | |
| 81 | C | Science & Technology | 'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025 and was a professor in an American university when the prize was announced. Identify 'X': | |
| 82 | C | International Relations | Which of the following statements with regard to Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct? 1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments. 2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14. 3. There is a limitation on the number of Wild Cards a player may receive. | |
| 83 | C | Science & Technology | Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched? | |
| 84 | A | Science & Technology | Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct? 1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level. 2. It was developed by IIT Delhi. | |
| 85 | A | History & Culture | Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong': 1. The film has recently won the BAFTA Award in the Children's and Family Film category. 2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi. 3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in this category. | |
| 86 | C | Science & Technology | Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct? 1. Records may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration. 2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers, syncing within seconds. 3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access. 4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted. | |
| 87 | A | Economy | An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders to a third-party supplier, who ships directly to the customer, is called: | |
| 88 | C | Economy | Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the RBI? | |
| 89 | C | Economy | Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) initiative? | |
| 90 | D | Economy | Which one of the following statements about UPI and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct? | |
| 91 | A | Economy | Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct? 1. Tokenization turns real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology. 2. Tokenization offers 24x7 access, promoting financial inclusion. 3. Tokenization will allow access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India. | |
| 92 | C | Economy | A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called: | |
| 93 | B | Economy | Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in MSME financing is/are correct? 1. M1xchange provides collateral-based loans to MSMEs. 2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs. 3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs. | |
| 94 | B | Economy | Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy? | |
| 95 | A | Geography | Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct? 1. Modern technological innovations including AI, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise REEs. 2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India. 3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025. 4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements. | |
| 96 | C | Economy | Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct? 1. Aviation Hull Insurance covers the physical aircraft, including body, engine, and on-board equipment. 2. Under the Montreal Convention (1999), airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to deceased passengers' families without requiring proof of fault. | |
| 97 | C | Economy | Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct? 1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amounts) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project. 2. SMEs are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures. | |
| 98 | D | Economy | In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched? (R.N. Malhotra Committee/Insurance/IRDAI; L.C. Gupta Committee/Derivatives trading/SEBI; Urjit R. Patel Committee/Housing sector reform/RBI; Y.H. Malegam Committee/Microfinance reform/RBI) | |
| 99 | A | Economy | Consider the following statements about Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India: 1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. 2. All NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with RBI. 3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheques drawn on themselves. 4. DICGC deposit insurance is not available to depositors of deposit-taking NBFCs. | |
| 100 | A | Economy | Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI): 1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology. 2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators. 3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of UNDP. |
Answer Key — CSAT (Paper 2)
CSAT answer key publishing soon
| Q. No | Set A | Set B | Set C | Set D | Topic | Explanation |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | — | — | — | — | — | Coming soon |
| 2 | — | — | — | — | — | Coming soon |
| 3 | — | — | — | — | — | Coming soon |
| … | … | … | … | … | … | … |
| 80 | — | — | — | — | — | Coming soon |
Full CSAT (Paper 2) answer key with explanations will be published soon.
What's New: Official Provisional Answer Key 2026
For the first time ever, UPSC will release an official provisional answer key for CSE Prelims 2026.
What Changed?
Previously, UPSC never released official answer keys. Candidates had to rely on coaching institutes, which often disagreed on 2–5 questions. Starting 2026, UPSC will publish a provisional key and allow objections.
Timeline
| Event | Expected Date |
|---|---|
| UPSC Prelims 2026 Exam | May 24, 2026 |
| PrepAiro Answer Key (AI-Verified) | May 24, 2026 (within hours) |
| Coaching Institute Answer Keys | May 24–25, 2026 |
| UPSC Provisional Answer Key | June 2026 (1–2 weeks post-exam) |
| Objection Window | 3–5 days after provisional key |
| UPSC Final Answer Key | Before results |
| Prelims Result | June–July 2026 |
How the Objection Process Works
- 1UPSC releases the provisional answer key on its official website
- 2Candidates can challenge answers by submitting evidence (NCERT references, expert opinions)
- 3UPSC reviews all objections
- 4Final answer key is published — this is used for marking
- 5Results are declared based on the final key
How PrepAiro's Answer Key Is Different
Published within hours of the exam — before UPSC’s official key
AI-verified with multiple expert cross-checks
Detailed explanations for every question — not just A/B/C/D
Mapped to NCERT sources and past PYQs
Score calculator built in
Expected Cut Off
Category-wise expected cutoffs vs. past years (out of 200)
| Category | Expected 2026 | 2024 Actual | 2023 Actual | 2022 Actual |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| General | 95–105 | 98 | 85.00 | 86.66 |
| OBC | 90–100 | 92 | 78.33 | 79.99 |
| SC | 78–88 | 82 | 72.00 | 69.33 |
| ST | 72–82 | 77 | 65.00 | 63.33 |
| EWS | 88–98 | 90 | 77.33 | 79.99 |
| PwBD-1 | 65–75 | 68 | 55.67 | 55.33 |
| PwBD-2 | 55–65 | 57 | 48.67 | 49.33 |
| PwBD-3 | 48–58 | 53 | 42.33 | 41.33 |
Final expected cutoff will be updated after the exam based on actual difficulty analysis.
Cutoff Trends — What to Expect
The UPSC Prelims cutoff depends on three factors:
- Difficulty level of the paper
- Number of candidates who appeared
- Number of vacancies advertised
In 2024, the cutoff jumped significantly due to a relatively easier paper. If the 2026 paper follows the recent trend of moderate-to-tough difficulty, expect cutoffs in the range shown above.
Score Calculator
Coming May 24, 2026
After the exam, use our interactive score calculator:
- Enter your answers question-by-question
- Get your estimated score instantly
- See where you stand against expected cutoffs for your category
- Compare your performance across subjects
Interactive tool unlocks the moment the exam ends.
Key Exam Details
| Exam Name | UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2026 |
| Conducting Body | Union Public Service Commission |
| Exam Date | May 24, 2026 (Sunday) |
| Paper 1 (GS) | 9:30 AM – 11:30 AM (2 hours, 100 questions) |
| Paper 2 (CSAT) | 2:30 PM – 4:30 PM (2 hours, 80 questions) |
| Marking Scheme | +2 correct, −0.67 wrong (1/3 negative marking) |
| Total Marks | GS: 200, CSAT: 200 (qualifying — 33% minimum) |
| Official Answer Key | Expected 1–2 weeks post-exam (first time ever) |
| Result Expected | June–July 2026 |
How to Use the Answer Key
Step 1
Note Your Answers
During the exam, mark your answers on the question paper itself (not just the OMR sheet). This is your only record.
Step 2
Identify Your Set
Check your booklet series — Set A, B, C, or D — printed on the front page of your question paper.
Step 3
Match Your Answers
Use the set-wise answer key table above to check each answer.
Step 4
Calculate Your Score
Use this formula: Score = (+2 × Correct) − (0.67 × Wrong). Leave unattempted questions out of the calculation.
Step 5
Compare With Cutoff
Use our score calculator and cutoff table to see where you stand for your category.
Step 6
Don’t Panic
Coaching institute answer keys can differ by 2–5 questions. Wait for UPSC’s provisional key for the final picture. Start Mains preparation regardless if you’re in the ballpark.
Subject-Wise Analysis
Detailed analysis coming May 24, 2026
Based on trends from 2021–2025
| Subject | Expected 2026 | 2025 | 2024 | 2023 | 2022 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| History & Culture | 15–18 | 17 | 16 | 15 | 16 |
| Geography | 12–15 | 14 | 13 | 12 | 13 |
| Polity & Governance | 12–15 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 14 |
| Economy | 12–15 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 12 |
| Environment & Ecology | 10–14 | 12 | 11 | 10 | 12 |
| Science & Technology | 8–12 | 10 | 9 | 10 | 9 |
| Current Affairs | 15–20 | 18 | 17 | 16 | 17 |
| International Relations | 3–5 | 4 | 5 | 3 | 4 |
Actual 2026 distribution will be updated after the exam with full topic-wise breakdown.